Why do people always misunderstand why Sodom was destroyed?

The text of Genesis 19 implies that God approved of Lot’s behavior, even though he made an offer of his virgin daughters to be raped. Therefore, God did not destroy everyone b/c they were potential rapists since Lot wasn’t punished even though he was willing to let his virgin daughters be gang raped by hundreds of men. If God was angry that the men were homosexual, then such a rationale would fail to explain why the women – as well as all the innocent children, infants, newborns, non-gay individuals, etc. — were killed.

Did God destroy city because the men:
1. Were gay OR—–
2. Were uncharitable and abusive to strangers, the poor, the sick, widows, orphans, and the disadvantaged.
3. Mistreated guests.

One should ask: how is God likely to act if a city fails to respect God and tries to interrogate and/or kills his angels.

If the men of the city were punished for homosexuality, this portion of the bible implies homosexuality is worse than gang raping virgin daughters, which few today would agree with. If any ambiguity exists, which interpretation is more consistent with the teachings of Jesus concerning love, mercy, forgiveness, etc.

In ancient Jewish literature, such as the Ethics of the Fathers and the Talmud, there are many references to Sodom. The phrase "middat Sdom" ("the way the people of Sodom thought") was used to indicate a lack of charity and hospitality towards others; ignoring the needs of the poor, etc. To help strangers was a solemn religious duty of paramount importance. See Leviticus 19:33-34 and Matthew 25:35, 38 and 43. The first chapter of Isaiah 1 is an utter condemnation of Judah. They are repeatedly compared with Sodom and Gomorra in their evildoing and depravity. Throughout the chapter, the Prophet lists many sins of the people.

Sins of Judah, which is constantly compared with Sodom and appears to share similar, if not identical, sins:
(1) rebelling against God,
(2) lacking in knowledge,
(3) deserting the Lord,
(4) idolatry,
(5) engaging in meaningless religious ritual,
(6) being unjust and oppressive to others,
(7) being insensitive to the needs of widows and orphans,
(8) committing murder,
(9) accepting bribes, and
(10) others. etc.

Despite the length of the list of sins, there is no reference to homosexuality or to any other sexual activities.

Ezekeiel 16:49-50: "Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen." God states clearly that he destroyed Sodom’s sins because of their pride, their excess of food while the poor and needy suffered; sexual activity is not even mentioned. Matthew 10:14-15: Jesus implied that the sin of the people of Sodom was to be inhospitable to strangers. Luke 10:7-16: This is parallel passage to the verses from Matthew.

Peter mentions that God destroyed the adults and children of Sodom because the former were ungodly, unprincipled and lawless.

The old testament does clearly say that homosexuality is a sin, by the way, in case you’re attempting to say the bible doesn’t forbid it.

Not that I care. Come on over here with us atheists, who won’t stone you to death…